Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why are we explaining today’s “climate change” as driven by human related “green house” gasses when natural “global warming” pushed sea level up to the “shores” of Topeka with no human contribution or even presence? Is Occam’s Rasor applied?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Why are men ridiculously delusional in the women they want/approach? I'm not a troll. This is a real question. Why does a fat, pot bellied, unkempt, balding, stupid (ergo poor) man, tell a woman above his league that she isn't hot enough for him?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

If my heart stopped beating, would I have enough energy to walk out into the other room 20 ft away before I passed out and died?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Read also: